Judicial Services Exams-Constitution of India

Judicial Services Exams

MCQs ON CONSTITUTION OF INDIA

Total Articles/ Parts/ Schedules respectively in the Indian Constitution are—

(A) 393/22/14

(B) 394/21/12

(D) 396/24/16

Ans: (C)

The Constituent Assembly was constituted on_____ consisting of total _____ members—

(A) 26.11.1946; 389

(B) 26.11.1946; 390

(D) 26.11.1946; 392

Ans: (A)

The first session of Constituent Assembly was held at_____?

(A) Kolkata

(B) Delhi

(D) Surat

Ans: (B)

The first session of Constituent Assembly was held at Delhi from—

(A) 06.12.1946 to 20.12.1946

(B) 07.12.1946 to 21.12.1946

(D) 09.12.1946 to 23.12.1946

Ans: (D)

The first session of the Constituent Assembly was presided over by whom ?

(A) Dr. B R Ambedkar

(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(D) K M Munshi

Ans: (C)

Except first session, the subsequent sessions of the Constituent Assembly were presided over by—

(A) Dr. B R Ambedkar

(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(D) K M Munshi

Ans: (B)

Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly—

(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

(B) V. N. Rao

(D) K M Munshi

Ans: (A)

Who was the advisor of the Constituent Assembly ?

(A) Dr. B R Ambedkar

(B) V. N. Rao

(D) K M Munshi

Ans: (B)

To make the Constitution the Constituent Assembly took how much time?

(A) 2 years, 11 months and 18 days

(B) 2 years, 13 months and 20 days

(D) None

Ans: (A)

Generally, the title of any enactment (i.e. the name by which a particular Act or enactment shall be known) is given in the very first chapter of the Act. However, the title of the Indian Constitution has been given in the last Part (out of 22 Parts) of the Indian Constitution under—

(A) Art. 390

(B) Art. 391

(D) Art. 393

Ans: (D)

The commencement of the Constitution has been dealt with under—

(A) Art. 393

(B) Art. 394

(D) Art. 396

Ans: (B)

Generally, definition clause is given or dealt at the beginning of any enactment. However, under Indian Constitution the definition clause has been given under—

(A) Art. 366

(B) Art. 367

(D) None

Ans: (A)

The Indian Constitution came into force on—

(A) 26.11.1949

(B) 26.01.1950

(D) 23.03.1949

Ans: (B)

Though the day of the commencement of the Constitution is 26.01.1950, certain provision of the Constitution came into force on –

(A) 26.11.1949

(B) 26.12.1949

(D) None

Ans: (A)

Article 370 (provisions relating to Jammu and Kashmir) came into force on—

(A) 14.11.1952

(B) 15.11.1952

(D) 17.11.1952

Ans: (D)

Govt. of India Act, 1935 is the main source (70%) of the Indian Constitution. Almost 200 Sections wholly or with partly modification included in the Constitution from the said Act—

(A) True

(B) Partly True

(D) Partly False

Ans: (A)

Concept of single citizenship has been inspired from which Constitution—

(A) U. S. Constitution

(B) Canadian Constitution

(D) British Constitution

Ans: (D)

Residuary powers of the Centre is inspired from which Constitution—

(A) Japanese Constitution

(B) Canadian Constitution

(D) British Constitution

Ans: (B)

The provisions relating to DPSPs under Indian Constitution are influenced by –

(A) Irish Constitution

(B) U. S. Constitution

(D) German Constitution

Ans: (A)

The fundamental duties under Article 51-A have been inspired from Constitution of –

(A) Irish Constitution

(B) U. S. Constitution

(D) German Constitution

Ans: (C)

Emergency and its effect on fundamental rights of Indian Constitution are based on—

(A) German Constitution

(B) U. S. Constitution

(D) German Constitution

Ans: (A)

The provisions relating to “Constitutional Amendments” have been inspired from which country’s Constitution—Indian Constitution came into force on—

(A) U. S. Constitution

(B) Canadian Constitution

(D) South Africa

Ans: (D)

Concept of Federalisn in Indian Constitution is influenced by the Constitution of—

(A) U. S. A.

(B) Canadian Constitution

(D) Japanese Constitution

Ans: (A)

Mark correct statements—

(A) Basically, the Constitution regulates the affairs between the individuals and the State.

(B) Constitution is not merely a law, rather it is a machinery by which laws are made.

(D) None

Ans: (C)

A Constitution may be—

(A) Written and Unwritten

(B) Unitary and Federal

(D) All

Ans: (D)

Mark correct statements—

(A) A written constitution is in the form of documents, like Indian Constitution.

(B) A Constitution which is not in a form of document is called an unwritten constitution, like the Constitution of Great Britain.

(D) None

Ans: (C)

Mark correct statements—

(A) In Unitary Constitution all powers vest with the Central government and the State governments act as subordinate to the Central government.

(B) The Great Britain Constitution is a unitary Constitution.

(C) Under Federal Constitution there is a distribution of power between the Central and the State Government. American Constitution is the best example of the Federal Constitution.

(D) All of the above

Ans: (D)

Mark correct statements—

(A) A Constitution is said to be flexible when it provides for a simple procedure for amendment.

(B) In rigid Constitution the amendment is comparatively complex.

(D) None

Ans: (D)

Indian Constitution is the fundamental law of the land. It embodies unique features and as such has a special place among the federal constitution of the world. These statements are—

(A) True

(B) Partly True

(D) Partly False

Ans: (A)

The salient features of the Indian Constitution are—

(A) Lengthiest Constitution

(B) Distribution of powers (Dual polity)

(D) All

Ans: (D)

The salient features of the Indian Constitution are—

(A) Fusion of rigid and flexible

(B) Quasi federal with centralized tendencies

(D) All

Ans: (D)

The Indian Constitution was adopted on—

(A) 26-11-1948

(B) 26-01-1949

(D) 26-01-1950

Ans: (C)

The Indian Constitution was enacted on—

(A) 26-11-1948

(B) 26-11-1949

(D) 26-01-1950

Ans: (B)

The Preamble is ultimately the adoption of the ‘Objective Clause’ on 22.01.1947 prepared by Pt. J L Nehru—

(A) True

(B) Partly True

(D) Partly False

Ans: (A)

The Preamble of Indian Constitution is also influenced by the ________Constitution—

(A) South Africa Constitution

(B) Japanese Constitution

(D) Australian Constitution

Ans: (D)

From the words ‘we the people of India’ in the Preamble we find that the source of Indian Constitution is—

(A) Parliament

(B) Constituent Assembly

(D) Judiciary

Ans: (C)

Mark correct statements as to Preamble—

(A) The Preamble contains the basic structures of our Constitution

(B) It reflects the scope, object and ideals of the Indian Constitution and polity

(D) All correct

Ans: (D)

The Preamble can be used to determine the ambit and legal interpretation of fundamental rights, DPSP and fundamental duties in particular and other provisions of the Constitution in general—

(A) True

(B) Partly True

(D) Partly False

Ans: (A)

In which case the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is the soul of the Indian Constitution—

(A) Golaknath’s Case

(B) Kesvananda Bharati’s case

(D) None

Ans: (A)

Who termed the “right to constitutional remedies” (Article 32) as the soul and heart of the Indian Constitution—

(A) K M Munshi

(B) H R Khanna

(D) Dr. B R Ambedkar

Ans: (D)

Who called Preamble as “political horoscope”—

(A) K M Munshi

(B) H R Khanna

(D) Dr. B R Ambedkar

Ans: (A)

The Preamble of the Constitution of India is—

(A) Justiciable

(B) Not justiciable

(D) Not justiciable and can not be enforced in the Court

Ans: (D)

Mark incorrect statements—

(A) Sovereignty is the most important element of Statehood

(B) India is sovereign in its external and internal affairs

(D) Indian membership of Commonwealth like any other organizations (viz. United Nations) is voluntary and not against the doctrine of absolute sovereignty

Ans: (C) [The sovereignty of India lies in its people]

The sovereignty of India lies in—

(A) Parliament

(B) Constitution

(D) Judiciary

Ans: (C)

The term socialist was inserted in the Indian Constitution through—

(A) 42^nd Amendment

(B) 44^th Amendment

(D) It was part of the original Constitution

Ans: (A)

Mark incorrect statements—

(A) The term socialist was added in the Preamble through 44^th Constitution Amendment Act, 1978.

(B) Indian socialism is republican socialism based upon the concept of J.L. Nehru which says that the State shall have minimum control over economic and natural resources.

(D) Part-IV of the Indian Constitution especially Article 39 reflects the socialistic approach.

Ans: (A)

The word socialist was inserted in the Preamble through—

(A) 42^nd Amendment, 1978

(B) 44^th Amendment

(D) It was part of the original Constitution

Ans: (A)

Secular means the State has—

(A) Religion of its own which is given preference over other religions

(B) Promotes a particular religion which is followed by the majority of the population of the state

(D) None

Ans: (C)

In which of the following case, secularism was declared to be the basic feature of the Indian Constitution—

(A) S R Bomai vs. Union of India

(B) Re Berubari’s Case

(D) None

Ans: (A)

Mark incorrect statements—

(A) Democratic means the head of the State is elected (direct or indirect) and not hereditary

(B) Like England, in India there is an indirect democracy or representative democracy

(D) All correct

Ans: (B) [Unlike England, in India there is an indirect democracy or representative democracy]

Which terms were added by the 42^nd Amendment—

(A) Socialist, secular and integrity

(B) Sovereign, secular and integrity

(D) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic and integrity

Ans: (A)

It is settled position that preamble is the part of the Indian Constitution—

(A) True

(B) Partly true

(D) Partly False

Ans: (A)

In Re Berubari’s Case (AIR 1960 SC 845), the Supreme Court with regard to the nature of the Preamble held that—

(A) Preamble is not a part of the Constitution

(B) The Preamble can not be amended by the Parliament

(D) All correct

Ans: (D)

In which of the following cases, the SC held that the Preamble is a part of Indian Constitution and as such it can be amended. But such amendment should not destroy the basic structure of the Constitution—

(A) Berubari’s Case

(B) Keshvanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala

(D) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Keshvanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala (1973) is popularly known as—

(A) Political determination case

(B) Fundamental rights case

(D) Parliamentary Privilege case

Ans: (B)

Which part/ Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the deals with the Union and its territories—

(A) Part I (Arts.1 to 3)

(B) Part I (Arts.1 to 4)

(D) None

Ans: (B)

While reflecting the aspect of “co-operative federalism” which Article of the Indian Constitution provides that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States—

(A) Art.1

(B) Art.2

(D) All

Ans: (A)

The names of the States and the Union territories have been specified in the______Schedule—

(A) 1^st Schedule

(B) 2^nd Schedule

(D) 4^th Schedule

Ans: (A)

Who has power to make law to admit into the Union, or establish, new States on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit—

(A) Parliament

(B) State

(D) (B) & (C) both

Ans: (A)

Which Article empowers the Parliament to make law to admit into the Union, or establish, new States on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit—

(A) Art.1

(B) Art.2

(D) Art.4

Ans: (B)

The Parliament may by law—

(A) Form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State

(B) Increase/ diminish the area of any State

(D) All correct

Ans: (D)

The Constituent Assembly was constituted under the India Independence Act 1947—

(A) True

(B) False

(D) Partly False

Ans: (A)

Mark incorrect statements—The Constituent Assembly as constituted under the Indian Independence Act, 1947 was—

(A) The sovereign Constitution making body

(B) The dominion Constitution making body

(D) All correct

Ans: (B)

On 24^th January, 1950 how many copies of the Indian Constitution were laid on the table of the House—

(A) One copy

(B) Two copies

(D) Four copies

Ans: (C) [Out of three copies, one copy was in English completely hand written and illuminated by artists. The second was in print in English and the third hand written in Hindi]

In terms of Article 3, the territories of India shall comprise –

(A) The territories of the States

(B) The Union territories specified in the First Schedule

(D) All correct

Ans: (D) [See Art.1(3)]

Which of the Articles empowers the Parliament to form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State or to increase/ diminish the area of any State or to alter the name/ boundaries of any State—

(A) Art.2

(B) Art.3

(D) None

Ans: (B)

Mark incorrect statements as to Article 3—

(A) For the purpose of Article 3, the term “State” includes Union territories

(B) Law may be made by simple majority

(D) All correct

Ans: (C) [See Explanation (I) to Art.3]

Mark correct statements as to Article 3—

(A) No Bill shall be introduced in either House of Parliament without the recommendation of the Governor with endorsement of President

(B) No Bill shall be introduced in either House of Parliament without the recommendation of the President

(C) Where the proposal contained in the Bill affects the area, boundaries, name of any of the State the President shall refer the Bill to the Legislature of the concerned State (not the Union Territories) for expressing its views within the period as specified by the President

(D) All correct

Ans: (A) [See Provision to Art.3]

No Bill shall be introduced in either House of Parliament without the recommendation of the President—

(A) True

(B) Partly true

(D) Partly false

Ans: (A) [See Provision to Art.3]

Any laws made by the Parliament under Articles 2 and 3—

(A) shall be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution

(B) shall be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of Article 368

(D) shall not be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of article 368

Ans: (D)

Any laws made by the Parliament under Articles 2 and 3 shall not be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. It is so provided under—

(A) Article 2

(B) Article 3

(D) Article 4 (2)

Ans: (D)

Mark incorrect statements as to citizenship—

(A) There existed no concept of Indian Citizenship before 26^th November 1949 and the subjects were governed by the British Nationality Acts and those who cam from any of the princely States had the status of British protected persons

(B) Citizenship involves the individual’s full political membership in the State

(D) All correct

Ans: (D)

Mark incorrect statements—

(A) Though domicile ordinarily connotes a person’s residence where he intends to live on a permanent basis, it is not a relevant criterion for citizenship of any country

(B) A citizenship is denoted by domicile and not vice-versa

(D) All correct

Ans: (B) [The domicile is an important criterion for citizenship of any country]

Mark incorrect statement as to Citizenship—

(A) Part II (Articles 5—11) deals with the provisions relating to citizenship

(B) Article 6 deals with the citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution

(D) All incorrect

Ans: (B) [Article 5 deals with the citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution]

Mark incorrect statements: At the commencement of the Indian Constitution, every person shall be deemed to be an Indian citizen who has his domicile in the territory of India and—

(A) who was born in the territory of India; or

(B) either of whose parents was born in the territory of India;

(C) who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not less than six years immediately preceding such commencement

(D) All incorrect

Ans: (C) [As per Article 5, a person is deemed to be an Indian Citizen who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not less than five years immediately preceding such commencement]

Mark incorrect matching—

(A) Article 5—Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution

(B) Article 6—Citizenship of persons migrated to India from Pakistan

(D) Article 8— Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship be law

(E) Article 10— Continuance of the right of citizenship

Ans: (D) [Art. 8 deals with the citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside India]

In which case the SC held that the word “migrated” in Article 6 was used in narrow sense to mean “coming from one place to another with the intention of residing permanently in the latter place”—

(A) Kulathil Mammu Vs. Kerala (1966)

(B) Shanoo Devi Vs. Mangal Sain (1961)

(D) Ebrahim Wazir Vs. State of Bombay (1954)

Ans: (B) [In Shanoo Devi Vs. Mangal Sain (1961 SC 58) the SC held that the word “migrated” in Article 6 was used in narrow sense to mean “coming from one place to another with the intention of residing permanently in the latter place]

In which case the SC overruled it judgment passed in Shanoo Devi Vs. Mangal Sain (1961) and held that the word “migrated” in Article 6 was used in wider sense to mean “coming from one place to another” (i.e. intention to reside permanently was not necessary)—

(A) Kulathil Mammu Vs. Kerala (1966)

(B) Shanoo Devi Vs. Mangal Sain (1961)

(D) Ebrahim Wazir Vs. State of Bombay (1954)

Ans: (A) [In Kulathil Mammu Vs. Kerala (1966 SC 1614) the SC held that the word “migrated” in Article 6 was used in wider sense to mean “coming from one place to another and the intention of residing permanently is not a pre-requisite]

A person who has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state shall not be deemed to be an Indian Citizen. It is so provided under—

(A) Article 9

(B) Article 10

(D) Article 12

Ans: (A)

As the Indian Constitution did not provide for the mode of acquisition and termination of citizenship and pursuant to the power conferred upon Parliament under Article 11, the Parliament has passed the Indian Citizenship Act, 1955. The Act provides for following modes for acquisition of citizenship—

(A) Citizenship by birth

(B) Citizenship by descent

(D) Citizenship by naturalization

(E) Citizenship by incorporation of territory in India

(F) All correct

Ans: (F)

The Citizenship Act, 1955 provides following modes for termination of citizenship. Mark incorrect mode—

(A) By renunciation

(B) By termination

(D) All correct

Ans: (C)

The Indian Citizenship Act, 1955 was amended in the year_______to tackle the situation created by the large scale immigration into India of persons from Bangladesh—

(A) 1980

(B) 1982

(D) 1986

Ans: (D)

The Citizenship Act, 1955 was amended in the year_____to introduce concept “Overseas Citizenship of India”—

(A) 2004

(B) 2005

(D) 2007

Ans: (B)

The overseas citizenship of India means that India has dual citizenship for Overseas citizens—

(A) True

(B) Partly true

(D) Partly false

Ans: (C)

Who described Part-III (Fundamental Rights) as the ‘most criticized part’ of the Indian Constitution as it was discussed for as many as 38 days—

(A) Dr. B R Ambedkar

(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(D) K M Munshi

Ans: (A)

Mark correct statements—

(A) The fundamental rights, DPSPs and the fundamental duties actually constitute one organic whole which follows from the Preamble.

(B) These trio proclaim the fundamental values and constitute the foundational principles of the Constitution

(C) The preambular assurance of the dignity of the individual is sought to be implemented through various provisions of Part III and IV

(D) All correct

Who observed that the fundamental rights weave a “pattern of guarantee” on the basic structure of human rights—

(A) Justice Bhagwati

(B) Justice Gajendragadkar

(D) Dr. S Radhakrishnan

Ans: (A) [In Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India (1978), Justice Bhagwati observed that the fundamental rights weave a “pattern of guarantee” on the basic structure of human rights and impose negative obligations on the State not to encroach on individual liberty in its various dimensions.]

Who described the fundamental rights “as a pledge to our people and a pact with the civilized world”—

(A) Dr. B R Ambedkar

(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(D) Dr. S Radhakrishnan

Ans: (D)

While making distinction between the fundamental rights [FR] and non-fundamental rights [NFR] who observed that the real distinction between the two is that NFRs are created by agreement between the parties while FRs are the gift of the law—

(A) Justice Bhagwati

(B) Justice Patanjali Sastry

(D) Dr. B R Ambedkar

Ans: (D)

Mark incorrect statements—

(A) Part III of the Indian Constitution deals with the fundamental rights (FRs) which are mainly positive obligations upon the State

(B) FRs in Indian Constitution are inspired from the Magna Carta, Declaration of Men and Citizen of France and American Constitution

(D) All correct

Ans: (A) [Though FRs are enumerated under Part III, it primarily imposes negative obligations upon the State not to encroach on individual liberty]

Assertion / Reason—

Assertion (A): The rights guaranteed under Part III are not absolute rights and they are subject to reasonable restrictions which are imposed to strike a meticulous balance between individual liberty and societal needs.

Reason (R): It is the duty of the State to look after the interests of individuals and society both.

(A) (A) is correct while (R) is incorrect

(B) (A) and (R) both incorrect

(D) (A) and (R) both correct and (R) is the correct explanation to (A)

Ans: (D)

The Fundamental Rights has been guaranteed under ———broad categories?

(A) Five

(B) Six

(D) Eight

Ans: (B)

Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the amendment of the Constitution—

(A) Part XVII

(B) Part XVIII

(D) Part XXI

Ans: (C)

Clauses (5) & (6) to Article 368 that tended to dilute the doctrine of basic structure were inserted by Constitutional Amendment—

(A) 17^th Amendment

(B) 24^th Amendment

(D) 44^th Amendment

Ans: (C)

9^th Schedule was added in the Indian Constitution through—

(A) 1^st Amendment

(B) 2^nd Amendment

(D) 5^th Amendment

Ans: (A)

In the 9^th Schedule of the Indian Constitution, how many Acts were included by the 1^st Amendment itself that has now grown almost to 284 Acts—

(A) 2 Acts

(B) 10 Acts

(D) 13 Acts

Ans: (D)

Vide which Constitutional Amendment, the voting age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years—

(A) 42^nd Amendment

(B) 44^th Amendment

(D) 65^th Amendment

Ans: (C)

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Judicial Services Exams-Constitution of India